I was wondering if some of the "sharps" that Bworld claims to have could help me with this quandary 
I know relatively what the value of a run is at the start of a game. But how (generally) does this deviate as the game is being played.
Theoretically if the value of a run is X at the start of a game, it would incrase by 1/18 or 1/9 after each inning.
The reason I am asking this is because I have been doing the in game thing over at wagerstreet and am pretty sure that the linesmaker is on top of things but I still think that there is some value in some of the plays.
I have had some success so far, but then have given most of it back betting on the live in game football. (which is far less statistics oriented and more "momentum" oriented)
What are some of your guys thoughts on the matter.
Lets take todays game:
Chicago Sox @
Cleveland Indians
closing line was -250 at Cris, and the runline was -1.5,-125 at olympic.
Assuming a 0-0 score what should the line be through each inning of play?

I know relatively what the value of a run is at the start of a game. But how (generally) does this deviate as the game is being played.
Theoretically if the value of a run is X at the start of a game, it would incrase by 1/18 or 1/9 after each inning.
The reason I am asking this is because I have been doing the in game thing over at wagerstreet and am pretty sure that the linesmaker is on top of things but I still think that there is some value in some of the plays.
I have had some success so far, but then have given most of it back betting on the live in game football. (which is far less statistics oriented and more "momentum" oriented)
What are some of your guys thoughts on the matter.
Lets take todays game:
Chicago Sox @
Cleveland Indians
closing line was -250 at Cris, and the runline was -1.5,-125 at olympic.
Assuming a 0-0 score what should the line be through each inning of play?
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