how do i explain to someone that -120 on both sides of a total is a 40 cent line????

[OLD MAN]

guy has been dealing for 20 years, just dont
understand.

[ahall_2]

Just Don't

[lillihammer]

Where the F@@K is there a 40cent line on totals? egads!

yes 5o-120/5u-120 is a 40cent line. but from a bettors point of view if he is laying -120 he doesn't give flake about what the other side is doing. The only thing that might make him care is a line movement to 5o-140/5u+100. then when he considers both sides he might understand he has a 40cent line.

incidently, i've seen some dime books post MLB pick 'ems at -110 for BOTH sides, then not move the line at all when everyone else has gone nyy-115/TOR+105.

hope this helps

[Hartley]

Explain that the total cents line is the total of the "minuses" or the "minuses" plus the "pluses". So -20 -20 =-40 or a 40 cent line.

Incidentally, the hold on this bet (which is more important to most sportsbooks and bettors) is 9%. This is calculated by dividing 1 by the dividend on each side plus 1. So 100/120 =.83333 and 1 divided by 1.8333=0.545. Doubling this equals 1.09 or a 9% hold. That is very high. On a standard 30 cent line, the hold is about 7% and on a 20 cent line, the hold is about 4.8% which is similar to the hold on a pass line bet in craps.

[OLD MAN]

THE "LOCALS" HERE DEAL ALL TOTALS
-120 ON EITHER SIDE.............
IF THE GAME IS 9 OVER -130-THEYRE STILL AT
0/U 9-120

[Eman]

I think with a 40 cent line they don't have to move as quickly with the action as somebody posting an 8 cent or dime line. They certainly don't need anywhere near equal action on both sides to make a nice profit.
Only thing that can be said is quit using the "locals"

[8thpole]

Hartley what if the line was -220 + 190? My figure doesnt come up the same as a chart I have. Could you show me the math?

[OLD MAN]

(1+PD)(1+PF)
THP=1- ------------------
[(1+PD)PF+1+PF]

THP=THEORETICAL HOLD %
PD=PRICE DOG
PF=PRICE FAV
SIMPLE, ISNT IT?????

[OLD MAN]

SORRY, DOESNT LOOK RIGHT.
(1+PD)(1+PF) IS DIVIDED BY [(1+PD)PF+1+PF]

[hart attack]

i thought -120 both ways was a 20 cent line???????? but wtf do i know!!

[buckeye]

Hartley,
Where the heck have you been playing craps at man? The hold on a pass line bet is approx. 1.4%, which is no where near the 4.55% of a "20 cent line" bet! It's tough enough to win at craps with this vig. 4.8% would make it virtually IMPOSSIBLE to ever win - even in the short term.

The most common definitions of -120 each way are that it is a 40 cent line, 20 cent juice, and 8.33% vigorish. But many bettors and bookies seem to "creatively" get these terms all mixed up and bassackwards, as well as the %'s behind them ( like saying it is 20% VIG instead of 8.33% in this case ). The odds/values of these terms do vary some when you go off of the pickem -120 lines, like to -150/+110 say, so hold %, or vig, becomes a better measurement at that point. I kind of think CANBET's approach of maintianing the same hold%/vig% up the escalation off pickem is the real "fair" way to treat moneylines! Outs that keep the "difference" 10 cents to -190 are preferable because their hold % goes down the whole way up until they go to 15 or 20 cent lines at their "break".

GL2All

[8thpole]

Could someone please do the math using -220 + 190. I know the formula and have a chart but my % do not come up the same as the chart. WTF am I doing wrong? Its easy when both sides are minus its the plus that I'm doing wrong.

[PMcK]

8thpole, here's the math:

-line: 1+(100/line), -220 = 1+(100/220) = 1.455

+line: 1+(line/100), +190 = 1+(190/100) = 2.9

hold = 1 - 1/(1/line1 + 1/line2 + 1/line3 + …) = 1 - 1/(1/1.455 + 1/2.9) = 0.031 or 3.1%

I hope that's correct now.

[This message has been edited by PMcK (edited 04-21-2001).]

[alec]

PMcK,

I believe you are wrong, sorry.

Or at least you have a different definition of the theoretical percentage hold.

The usual meaning of the theoretical percentage hold is the percentage of the amount of money that a book "holds" from the amount of money ACCEPTED.

In you example 3.2% is the percentage of money that a book "holds" from the amount of money that it PAYS OUT.

In your example if a books accepts (1/1.455) @1.455 and (1/2.9) @2.9, it pays out 1 regardless the outcome. And 0.032 is 3.2% of 1, not of the amount of money accepted.

[alec]

8thpole,

In the case of two possible outcomes, the formula is easy.

First convert the odds into decimal format.

Now suppose the odds are a and b.

% hold = (1-(ab/(a+b)))*100